Arsenal are making bold moves in the January transfer window, with club officials set to fly to Turkey next week to discuss the potential signing of Fenerbahce defender Ferdi Kadioglu according to Sabah.

The 24-year-old Turkish international has impressed Mikel Arteta’s side with his recent performances, emerging as a top target amid their left-back injury crisis.

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With Kieran Tierney and Nuno Tavares sidelined, the Gunners’ title aspirations are facing a stern test.

Kadioglu, comfortable playing on both flanks, in forward and defensive roles presents a versatile solution. According to Sabah, Fenerbahce value him at €30 million (£25 million), a price tag reflecting his talent and Arsenal’s desperation.

While Fenerbahce prefer to keep him, Arsenal’s financial muscle could prove persuasive.

The Gunners clearly believe Kadioglu is the answer, evidenced by their willingness to negotiate directly in Istanbul.

However, a potential snag lies in Arsenal’s already crowded left-back position. Oleksandr Zinchenko, Takehiro Tomiyasu, and Jurrien Timber are all expected to return from injury in the coming months, creating a potential surplus.

The question for Arteta is whether Kadioglu is worth the investment given the looming return of other options.

Kadioglu has been closely linked with Arsenal and a move to the Premier League in the past.

He is under contract until 2026 and has two goals and three assists in 24 games in all competitions this season. Kadioglu has 15 international caps for the Turkish national team and is expected to join his country for Euro 2024 this summer.