Ferdi Kadıoğlu’s time at Fenerbahce appears to be nearing its end, with the 24-year-old Turkish international reportedly set to leave the club after five seasons according to Aksam.

Kadıoğlu’s impressive performances haven’t gone unnoticed, attracting interest from several European giants. Among them, Arsenal seems to be the frontrunner for his signature.

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The Gunners are reportedly prepared to offer €30 million to secure Kadıoğlu’s services. However, the competition is fierce, with Italian clubs Napoli and Milan also expressing their interest.

The reports suggest Kadıoğlu is leaning towards a move to the Premier League and a potential switch to Arsenal. The report emphasizes the urgency for Arsenal to finalize the deal before his price potentially increases after Euro 2024.

Kadıoğlu’s versatility is a major selling point for Arsenal. He has excelled in multiple attacking positions, including the right and left wing, as well as a wing-back role.

The report claims he would be a valuable addition, addressing Arsenal’s weaknesses in the wide areas.

Kadıoğlu himself has been a key player for Fenerbahce this season, appearing in 39 matches and contributing to the team with 3 goals and 4 assists.

With his contract expiring at the end of the season, Kadıoğlu’s future seems likely to lie outside of Fenerbahce, with a potential move to Arsenal shaping up as the most probable destination.